Coach Henderson had 16 gallons of paint. He used an equal amount of the paint each of 5 days. How many gallons of paint did he use each day?


A.
5
16
B.
1
6
5
C.
3
1
5
D.
3
1
16

Answer:

1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

You add up the amount in each bag then you take the amount of green then that will be the answer but since there is 2 bags it is 1/3

Answer: 8 , -4 I think

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The real answer is (8, -4) and (-6, -4)

Answer:

Integrate from 3 to 1 and then you should get 4/3

So C.

Answer:

B) 60.21 ft²

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of a triangle = 1/2bh

You can‘t used mixed measurements (feet and inches), so you have to convert each length to inches

8’6”=102’

14’2”=170’

Now find the area

1/2 x 102 x 170 = 8670 in²

This is one of the answers, but the quetion asks how many quart feet you need.

So, convert it back to feet.

8670 x 0.06944444444 = 60.2083333

(You could also have converted the two lengths to feet. 8’6” = 8.5 ft.  14’2” = 14.16666666.  This way would probably have been faster.

1/2 x 8.5 x 14.166666 = 60.20833333)

Answer: C 30 it was correct on my test

The estimated probability that at least two of the puppies will be female is 60%.

Probability deals with the occurrence of a random event. The chance that a given event will occur. It is the measure of the likelihood of an event to occur.The value is expressed from zero to one.

For the given situation,

Let heads (H) be the female puppy

Let tails (T) be the male puppy.

The simulation results are the sample spaces.

[tex](THTT, TTTH, TTHH, HTTT, TTTT, HHHH, HTHT, HHHT, THTH, THTH)[/tex]

⇒ [tex]n(s)=10[/tex]

The event is the probability that at least two of the puppies will be

female.

[tex]e=(TTHH, HHHH, HTHT, HHHT, THTH, THTH )\\[/tex]

⇒ [tex]n(e)=6[/tex]

The estimated probability that at least two of the puppies will be

female, [tex]P(e)=\frac{n(e)}{n(s)}[/tex]

⇒ [tex]P(e)=\frac{6}{10}[/tex]

⇒ [tex]P(e)=0.6[/tex]

Thus the percentage of the female puppies = [tex](0.6)(100)[/tex]

⇒ [tex]60\%[/tex]

Hence we can conclude that the estimated probability that at least two of the puppies will be female is 60%.

Learn more about probability here

https://brainly.com/question/16086035

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Answer:

Frame A width = 6.67 inches

Frame B width = 6 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

WA = width of frame A

WB = width of frame B

(WA)(6.75) = 45

WA = 6.67

(WB)(7.5) = 45

WB = 6

Answer:

Mean

Step-by-step explanation:

best measure of central tendency to use when your data distribution is continuous and symmetrical

*it depends on what you are trying to show from this set of data!

Answer:

if the worker has more experience, then they will have longer shifts because they will be better at their job and be able to complete more tasks.

Step-by-step explanation:

use and "if then because" structure in a hypothesis, and use common logic based on the info provided :)

Answer:

[tex]H_{0}[/tex] : Work experience is independent of the time of an employee's shift

[tex]H_{A}[/tex] : Work experience is dependent on the time of an employee's shift

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we have one population but multiple variables, so we are using a chi-square test of independence. Thus, our null should be that there is no association, and the alternative that there IS an association.

Answer:

1. 3x-7y and -7y+3x

Step-by-step explanation:

1. 3x -7y and -7y +3x

This is correct because the terms remain unchanged. The -7y stays a -7y and the positive 3x stays a positive 3x.

2. 3x -7y and 7y -3x

This is not correct because the signs of the 3x and 7y switch. For the expressions to be equivalent, the signs must remain unchanged.

3. 3x -7y and 3y -7x

This is not correct because the variables of the 3 and 7 switched. The variables need to stay the same, for the expressions to be equivalent.

4. 3x-7 and -3y+7x

This is not correct because both the variables and the signs of the expressions changed. Both the signs and variables would need to stay the same in order to be equivalent.

Answer:

2.13kg

Step-by-step explanation:

fnet=ma

17=m(8)

17÷8 =m

2.13=m

Answer:

The mass is 2¹/₈, or 2.125, kg

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that force is equal to mass times acceleration, so given a force of 17 newtons and an acceleration of 8m/s², we can say:

[tex]f = ma\\m = f/a\\m = \frac{17\ N}{8\ m/s^2}\\m = \frac{17\ kg\times m/s^2}{8\ m/s^2}\\m = 17/8\ kg\\m = 2.125 kg[/tex]

giving us a mass of 2¹/₈, or 2.125 kg.

Answer:

i think letter D or C i also have this question

Answer:

its b

Step-by-step explanation:

i just did it

Answer: 56.1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

6.98

Step-by-step explanation:

You just round the seven up

Answer: y=-4x+6

Step-by-step explanation:

M is the slope in slope intercept form.

y=mx+b

And b is the Y intercept because when you plug in zero for x you get y=b.

So we know

y=-4x+b

Because m is the slope

And y is 6 because it is shown in the parentheses

So we know the answer is y=-4x+6

81+54x because 9 *9 = 81 and 9*6 is 54 and add the x to it and put it all together.

Answer:

option 2 and 3

b+6=11

b+4=9

Answer:

1. 8 - b = 13

Step-by-step explanation:

It says for which equation is b = 5 not the solution.

So, we need to plug in 5 into every b, and find out which one is incorrect.

1. 8 - 5 = 13 (incorrect)

2. 5 + 6 (correct)

3. 5 + 4 = 9 (correct)

4. 12 - 5 = 7 (correct)

Therefore, option 1 is the answer to your question.

Answer:

180 and 2.5

Step-by-step explanation:

for the second collum over 3 it would be 180

For the one under 150 it would be 2.5

let me know if you need a better explanation

Answer:

3=45   150=5              

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

For one roll it’s1/6

C

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of rolling exactly one 6 = 16×(56)5=312546656

Answer:

1302

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

n o The angle terminates in Quadrant II In degrees, the reference angle for the given angle is 30°.

Step-by-step explanation:

Howdy, did you do a, b, and c by yourself? Because there are some slight issues, so I'll do my best to explain.

a. 3x+5x

We know that x=2, so we can substitute 2 in for x right now, or we can combine like terms.

3x and 5x both have the variable x so we can add them easily to get 8x. If you substitute in 2, you're just multiplying 8×2, which is 16.

b. 5z+4z+z

Again, since

we know that z=-3, we can substitute in now, or we can combine like terms first. 5z, 4z, and z all have the variable x, we addition is easy. 5+4+1=10, so you'll have 10z. Substitute in -3 for z, and you're just multiplying 10×-3=-30

c. 3x+6+5x

This is trickier since 6 doesn't have the variable x. So to combine like terms means to only add 3x and 5x. So the equation will turn out looming like 8x+6. now substitute in 2 for x and you get

8(2)+6

16+6

22

d. 8y+8-4y

Combine like terms

4y+8

substitute in 5 for y

4(5)+8

20+8

28

e. 5z-4z+z

combine like terms

z+z

2z

substitute -3 for z

2(-3)

-6

f. 3x+6+5x-2

combine like terms

(so that's 3x+5x and 6-2)

8x+4

substitute in 2 for x

8(2)+4

16+4

20

g. 8y+8-4y-3

combine like terms

8y-4y+8-3

4y+5

substitute in 5 for y

4(5)+5

20+5

25

h. 5z-4z+z-3z

combine like terms

-z

substitute in -3 for z

-(-3)

double negatives make a positive

3

Answer:

The area of the grass covered by the sprinkler water is approximately 78.54 feet^2

Answer:

78.54 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

10 is the diameter so 5 is the radius,

A = πr2 = π·52 ≈ 78.53982

Answer:

1/3 of 45 = 15 cubic feet

Step-by-step explanation:

volume of rectangular prism = (B)(h)

volume of rectangular pyramid = 1/3(B)(h)

Answer:

Y = (1/2)x - 2

Step-by-step explanation:

To compose a linear equation, always use the form

Y = Mx + C where C is the y-intercept and M is the gradient.

In this case, pick any 2 points on the graph to solve for M

e.g (8,2) and (6,1)

Gradient = (2 - 1) /(8 -6) given by (y1 - y2) / (x1 - x2) = 1 / 2

Substitute into the form, we get

Y = (1/2)x + C

Now, we use any point again on the graph,

e.g (6,1) and substitute as (x, y) into the above function.

We will get 1 = (6)(0.5) + C

C = -2

Piece them up and u get the full function.

Answer:

600

Step-by-step explanation:

anything times 1 is itself

Answer:

in a span of 30 years, the family would pay $40,410 in rent.

Step-by-step explanation:

you simply multiply $1,347 by 30!

(comment any questions)