A healthy adult's potassium level typically ranges from 3.5 to 5.0 millimoles per liter (mmol/L). When levels exceed 5.5 mmol/L, hyperkalemia develops. Heart issues can arise from a reading higher than 6.5 mmol/L .
What is used to decrease potassium levels in acute renal failure?By using nebulized beta2 agonists, intravenous insulin and glucose, or both, serum potassium levels can be acutely reduced. The next step is the start of sodium polystyrene therapy, sometimes combined with saline and intravenous furosemide.A healthy adult's potassium level typically ranges from 3.5 to 5.0 millimoles per liter (mmol/L). When levels exceed 5.5 mmol/L, hyperkalemia develops. Heart issues can arise from a reading higher than 6.5 mmol/L and necessitate immediate medical attention.A common condition called hyperkalemia can be fatal if it goes undiagnosed or untreated. The quickest onset of action for insulin is when it is injected intravenously, and it is very effective at lowering serum potassium. In terms of lowering serum potassium, 2-adrenergic agonists are just as effective as insulin and have a longer half-life.To learn more about : Hyperkalemia
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a client presents to the health care clinic with reports of inability to concentrate at work and daily frontal headaches for the past two weeks. what additional information should the nurse ask this client?
The addition assessment a well trained nurse should request from a patient with headaches and lack of concentration is the presence of sinus congestion.
The correct answer choice is option c.
Why collecting the presence of sinus congestion?When the the nasal cavities of an individual is been affected such as congestion in that area or its inflammations, certain symptoms such as as serious frontal headache and inability to concentrate manifest. In order for the nurse to be sure and confirm that the patient is suffering from nasal congestion, assessment such as the presence of sinus must be collected.
In conclusion, the presence of sinus in addition to others symptoms confirms and complete the assessment for nasal inflammation.
Complete question:
A client complains of the inability to concentrate at work and daily frontal headaches for the past two weeks. What additional assessment data does the nurse need to collect?
a. Presence of a cough?
b. Recent dental work?
c. Presence of sinus congestion?
d. Recent head trauma?
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when assessing a client withdrawing from alcohol, the nurse notes that the client is anxious, experiencing nausea, is restless, and has a tremor when both arms are extended. what should the nurse should do next?
The nurse should have to first try to cam the patient as the patient is getting anxious, then nurse should have to immediately give medicine to the patient.
What is addiction?Addiction is defined as an inability to stop using a substance or engaging in a behavior despite the fact that it causes psychological and physical harm.
It can also be defined as a brain disease characterized by compulsive substance use despite negative consequences.
The main causes of addiction are chronic stress, a history of trauma, mental illness, and an addiction family history.
Thus, the nurse should have to first try to cam the patient as the patient is getting anxious, then nurse should have to immediately give medicine to the patient.
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what is the most appropriate fluid intake strategy be for a team sport athlete who expects to lose 2.5 liters of sweat (about 3% of body mass) during a practice?
The most appropriate fluid intake strategy for a team sport athlete will be starting the race well-hydrated, and just taking fluids as needed.
The approach adopted below can assist in adequately hydrating for physical activity: Drink 14–22 oz of water 2-4 hours before working out. Drink 16 to 32 ounces of liquid every 60 minutes while doing out. After: For every pound lost during exercise, drink 20 to 24 ounces of water.
The two most popular schools of thought when it comes to the best ways to hydrate while exercising are planned drinking versus drinking when you're thirsty or ad libitum drinking. Both approaches aim to maintain performance and avoid over or underhydration.
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what is the importance regarding the structure of the play of the appearance of rebecca nurse just when john proctor is struggling to make the most important decision of his life?
The importance of the structure of the play of the appearance of Rebecca's nurse just when john proctor is struggling to make the most important decision of his life he feels guilty about signing the paper and has the need to save her.
During the Salem Witch Trials of 1692, Rebecca Nurse (February 13, 1621–July 19, 1692) was found guilty of witchcraft and hanged in New England. The moral high point of the drama is Rebecca. She serves as the standard by which Miller evaluates all other characters. Rebecca Nurse serves as the play's embodiment of moral virtue and integrity.
Because of his accusations against Abigail and Mary Warren, john proctor is guilty of witchcraft. Either he enters a not-guilty plea and is executed for witchcraft, or he enters a guilty plea and is spared. Regardless of the outcome, the confession demonstrates remorse for the crime and spares the defendant from the death penalty.
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Which respiratory treatment uses medication suspended within a mist through a mask or nebulizer?.
Answer:
Budesonide
Explanation:
Budesonide comes as a powder to inhale by mouth using an inhaler and as a suspension to inhale by mouth using a special jet nebulizer (a machine that turns medication into a mist that can be inhaled). Budesonide powder for oral inhalation is usually inhaled twice a day.
during a blood transfusion of a client, the nurse observes the appearance of rash and flushing in the client, although the vital signs are stable. which intervention should the nurse perform for this client first?
The nurse should Stop the transfusion immediately
What is Blood transfusion ?A blood transfusion is a common medical operation in which you receive donated blood through a tiny tube inserted into a vein in your arm. This potentially life-saving operation can assist in replacing blood that has been lost as a result of surgery or an injury.
The nurse must promptly cease the transfusion. If the patient exhibits symptoms of incompatibility, the nurse should be prepared to offer oxygen, infuse saline quickly, and administer an antihistamine because these symptoms point to an allergic reaction to the transfusion.Patients who have suffered severe injuries in auto accidents or other natural disasters often require blood transfusions. Blood transfusions are frequently administered to those who have an ailment that causes anaemia, such as leukaemia or kidney failure.Learn more about Blood transfusion here:
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a client tells the nurse that she has been working hard for the past 3 months to control her type 2 diabetes with diet and exercise. to determine the effectiveness of the client's efforts, the nurse should check:
If a client tells the nurse that she has been working hard for the past 3 months to control her type 2 diabetes with diet and exercise, then in order to determine the effectiveness of the client's efforts, the nurse should check the C. glycosylated hemoglobin level.
What is type 2 diabetes?Type 2 diabetes is a condition in which the individual is unable to control the levels of glucose (sugar) in the blood, which represents a metabolic disorder associated with glycosylated hemoglobin (6.5% and/or higher is a sign of diabetes).
Therefore, with this data, we can see that type 2 diabetes is associated with glycosylated hemoglobin levels of 6.5% or higher.
Complete question:
A client tells the nurse that she has been working hard for the past 3 months to control her type 2 diabetes with diet and exercise. To determine the effectiveness of the client's efforts, the nurse should check:
A. serum fructosamine level.
B. fasting blood glucose level.
C. glycosylated hemoglobin level.
D. urine glucose level.
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a patient had a carotid endarterectomy yesterday and when the nurse arrived in the room to perform an assessment, the patient states, "all of a sudden, i am having trouble moving my right side." what concern should the nurse have about this complaint?
If there is a sudden new onset of neurologic deficits, such as weakness on one side of the body, thrombus formation at the site of the endarterectomy is suspected.
Carotid endarterectomy is a surgical procedure used to remove fatty deposits (plaque) that cause a narrowing of the carotid artery. The carotid arteries are the main blood vessels that carry oxygen and nutrients to the neck, face, and brain. The two main dangers are: Stroke - The risk of stroke is about 2%, though it may be higher in people who have already had a stroke. Death - There is a less than 1% chance of death as a result of complications such as a stroke or heart attack.
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which readings obtained from a client's pulmonary artery catheter suggest that the client is in left-sided heart failure?
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) 20 mm Hg readings obtained from a client's pulmonary artery catheter suggest that the client is in left-sided heart failure.
PCWP is typically 8–15 mm Hg. When the PCWP is 20 mm Hg or higher, the left ventricle is overloaded with blood, as in heart failure.
The function, anatomy, and pressure-generating capacities of the right and left hearts must be taken into account separately for cardiac monitoring. Between the right and left hearts, the pulmonary capillary bed is a flexible system with a large blood-sequestering capacity.
The circulatory system is made up of two components: the pulmonary circulation, which has low blood flow resistance due to its low pressure, and the systemic circulation, which has significant blood flow resistance due to its high pressure.
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you are evaluating a one-month-old girl in the clinic for a routine health supervision visit. she was born at term to a 35-year-old, gravida 3, para 3, mother via normal spontaneous vaginal delivery. on exam, the infant weighs 2.5 kg with flat face, upward slanted palpebral fissure, epicanthal folds and diffuse hypotonia. which other physical exam finding is most consistent with the diagnosis?
Physical exam findings like Down syndrome, fetal warfarin syndrome, and congenital lymphedema are most consistent with the diagnosis of the mentioned symptoms.
Sandal toe deformity, also known as a wide gap between the first and second toes, is a sign of Down syndrome. Sandal gap deformity is characterized by the medial displacement of the great toe, resulting in a greater-than-normal space between the first and second toes. Although separation of the great toe is not a common occurrence in children with other syndromes, it has been reported in 45 percent of Down syndrome children.
In fetal warfarin syndrome, hypoplastic distal phalanges are frequently observed. Warfarin consumption by the mother during pregnancy can result in Fetal Warfarin Syndrome, also known as Warfarin Embryopathy. this syndrome is characterized by a variety of dysmorphic features, including hypoplastic or absent distal phalanges and distinctive facial features. Most of the time, the middle phalanges of digits 2 through 5 are short and may fuse with the hypoplastic distal phalanges that go with them.
Congenital lymphedema, also known as puffiness of the hands and feet, is a common symptom of Turner syndrome. Lymphedema affects approximately two out of every three people with Turner syndrome at some point in their lives. Hand and foot swelling is common in children with Turner syndrome. Typically, during childhood, the excess fluid is absorbed by the body.
(Complete question)
You are evaluating a one-month-old girl in the clinic for a routine health supervision visit. She was born at term to a 35-year-old, gravida 3, para 3, mother via normal spontaneous vaginal delivery. On exam, the infant weighs 2.5 kg with a flat face, upward slanted palpebral fissure, epicanthal folds, and diffuse hypotonia. Which another physical exam finding is most consistent with the diagnosis?
A.Hypoplastic distal phalanges
B.Hypoplastic radius
C.Puffiness of hands and feet
D.Wide gap between the first and second toe
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which new initiative needs a health care leader's active engagement since it involves the understanding that the distribution of health outcomes within a specific population will be used to measure a health care organization's success and determine its reimbursement?
The distribution of health outcomes within a given population is something that the population health program needs a health care leader to actively engage in.
will be used to assess a healthcare organization's performance and decide how much to pay it. The health outcomes of a group of people, and how those results are distributed throughout the group, are referred to as population health. The healthcare sector includes a number of industries that are committed to offering healthcare services and goods.
since a leader in health care must actively participate in this population health program.
Management of population health is a career option within population health. A population health manager focuses on enhancing the health outcomes of a group by keeping track of each member according to their age, income, location, gender, and medical condition.
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the nurse and client are entering the resolution phase of the relationship. which behaviors indicate that the client does not want the relationship to end? select all that apply.
The nurse and client are entering the resolution phase of the relationship. The behaviors that indicate that the client does not want the relationship to end are skips the last session, expresses anger towards the nurse and other clients and identifies a resolved problem as a new one needing to be addressed.
The body gradually resumes its regular level of functioning throughout resolution phase, and swollen and erect bodily components shrink back to their original size and color. Growth occurs for both the client and the nurse. Ambivalence may be felt upon termination.
Both the nurse and the patient must be aware that losing a relationship can be painful. Both parties should express their thoughts regarding the termination of the therapeutic alliance. Preinteraction, orientation, working, and termination are the four successive phases of a nurse-client relationship that Hildegarde Peplau describes. Each is distinguished by certain duties and social abilities.
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when being discharged from the cardiac floor, a client is concerned about the cumulative side effects of drugs on his body. how should the health care practitioner best respond to the client concerning how long these drugs will stay in his system?
when being discharged from the cardiac floor, a client is concerned about the cumulative side effects of drugs on his body. The the health care practitioner best respond to the client concerning how long these drugs will stay in his system.
practitioner one who practices a profession, specifically: one who does so. 2 As a recognized healer, Christian Science.
Practitioners are qualified health care workers, such as clinical psychologists, dentists, and podiatrists, among others.
Practice can also refer to a professional's patients, routine tasks, and workplace, such as a doctor. The definition of a practitioner is someone who is actively working in their profession and has acquired all necessary knowledge. Therefore, there is no need to worry about going to the doctor because it won't be practice for them.
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When using the area health education centers model, the student should first state the consequence
Explanation: The Area Health Education Centers (AHEC) Program is a federally funded program established in the United States in 1972 "to improve the supply, distribution, retention and quality of primary care and other health practitioners in medically underserved areas." The program is "part of a national effort to improve access to health services through changes in the education and training of health professionals." The program particularly focuses on primary care.
Answer:
This is true.
Explanation:
. a patient has a slightly elevated temperature. which questions would the nurse ask to determine if there are factors that may have contributed to the elevated temperature? select all that apply.
Before the fever, had the patient been moving around? Had the patient eaten anything lately? The patient may have shivering. The nurse would inquire about these things to find out what was causing the fever.
Human body temperatures typically fall between 36°C and 38°C. A measurement exceeding 37.2°C is typically seen as suspect, though. There should be additional inspections for temperature. Hormonal fluctuations, exposure to extremes of heat or cold, exercise, and infections can all affect a patient's body temperature.
Shivering. While the patient experiences an increase in body temperature due to the higher set point (pyrexia), they also experience cold until the new set point is attained. Rigors are the medical term for extremely cold symptoms accompanied with ferocious shivering. The patient experiences rigors as a result of their Shivering.
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.
a client has been found to have a breast lump and an ultrasound has been ordered. the client voices concerns to the nurse she is afraid of the painful testing she is going to endure. how should the nurse best respond?
If you observe: Schedule an appointment with your doctor. near your underarm, a tough bump or knot. changes to the appearance or sensation of your breasts, such as thickening or a noticeable fullness that is not consistent with the surrounding tissue.
How can you determine whether a bump is cancerous?Cancerous bumps are often big, hard, and painless to the touch when they first occur. Over the coming weeks and months, the bulk will expand steadily. Cancerous tumours that are palpable from the outside of your body can develop in the breast, testicles, neck, arms, and legs in addition to these locations.
A screening mammography (a breast X-ray) frequently reveals an abnormal region, necessitating extra testing. A new mass or lump in the breast that you or your doctor may feel in certain circumstances is the first indication of breast cancer. A lump with uneven borders, hardness, and no discomfort is more likely to be cancer.
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Make an appointment to see your physician. a hard lump or knot close to your underarm. a change in the feel of your breasts, like a perceptible fullness that is out of character with the tissue around it, or a thickness.
What does the word "worry" mean?When you act in someone's best interest, it's because you desire them to be content, secure, and healthy. He had absolutely no hope without her kindness and consideration. Only out of compassion for his three grandsons had he accompanied them. [ + for] Synonyms: attention, regard, interest, and consideration More problematic synonyms.
What is ultrasound?The imaging technique of diagnostic ultrasound, also known as doppler ultrasound or medical diagnostic sonography, uses sound waves to create images of the internal organs and other structures in your body. The photos can give important data that can be used to diagnose and guide the treatment of a range of illnesses and ailments.
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a high school student sustained a concussion during a football game. the school nurse will educate the family about postconcussion syndrome and ask them to watch for and report which manifestations of its presence? headaches and poor concentration recurrent nosebleeds and hypersomnia unilateral weakness and decreased coordination neck pain and decreased neck range of moti
The school nurse will educate the family about post concussion syndrome and ask them to watch for and report for manifestation of headaches and poor concentration.
What are post concussion syndrome?Post concussion syndrome occurs when concussion symptoms last beyond the expected recovery period after the initial injury. The usual recovery period is weeks to months. The symptoms for the post concussion syndrome may include headaches, dizziness, and problems with concentration and memory.
The post concussion syndrome may also be more severe in those who have early symptoms of headache after injury, or who have mental changes such as amnesia, fogginess or fatigue.
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a client comes to the walk-in clinic reporting weakness and fatigue. while assessing this client, the nurse finds evidence of petechiae and ecchymoses and notes that the spleen appears enlarged. what would the nurse suspect is wrong with this client?
Aplastic anaemia would the nurse suspect is wrong with this client.
What is Aplastic anaemia?A rare condition in which the body stops producing enough new blood cells. Aplastic anaemia occurs as a result of damage to the bone marrow. Damage can occur at birth or after exposure to radiation, chemotherapy, toxic chemicals, certain drugs, or infection. Symptoms can develop slowly or suddenly. Fatigue, frequent infections, rapid pulse and bleeding may occur. Treatment may include medications, blood transfusions and stem cell transplants if necessary.
Aplastic anaemia is caused by damage to the stem cells in your bone marrow, which is the spongy tissue in your bones. Many diseases and conditions can damage bone marrow stem cells.
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which potential complication would the nurse associate with a patient's hypermetabolic state in the intensive care unit who is receiving ppv
PPV and the hypermetabolism associated with critical illness can contribute to inadequate nutrition.
What is positive pressure ventilation (PPV) ?Today's most popular mechanical ventilation method is positive pressure ventilation. During positive pressure ventilation, the ventilator pushes air into the alveoli and tiny airways, creating a pressure gradient that generates airflow.
Positive-pressure breathing may have harmful physiological effects on the body, including decreased cardiac output, unintentional respiratory alkalosis, elevated intracranial pressure, stomach distension, and impaired hepatic and renal function.Venous return is impeded and PEEP is higher than CVP. IVC and the right atrium will seem compressed on echo. Cardiovascular output will be reduced as a result of this decreased preload.Learn more about Positive Pressure Ventilation here:
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a person is overweight (350 pounds) and desires to lose 35 pounds over a 6-month period. the total kcalorie intake restriction required to reach the weight-loss goal is select . if the weight loss time period is 27 weeks, the weekly kcalorie restrictions to achieve the goal are select and the daily kcalorie restrictions to achieve this goal are select .
The weight loss time period is 27 weeks, the weekly k calorie restrictions to achieve the goal are 122,500 kcal.
The unit is most frequently used to describe the specific energy (energy per mass) of metabolizing various forms of food, which is what it means by the term "food energy." For instance, fat (lipids) has 9 kcal/g of calories while protein and carbs (sugar and starch) have about 4 kcal/g. Food containing alcohol has 7 kcal per g. The phrase "calories per day" is another way to represent recommended dietary intake or consumption using the "big" unit. Dieting is the practice of eating in a controlled manner in order to reduce, maintain, or increase body weight, as well as to prevent and treat conditions including diabetes and obesity. Since cutting calories is necessary for weight loss, numerous calorie-reduced diets have been found to be generally successful.
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during a physical assessment of a 6-year-old child, the nurse observes the child has lost a tooth. the nurse uses the opportunity to promote oral health care with the child and parents. which comment should the nurse include in this discussion?
The nurse should be included in this discussion because "oral health can affect general health."
The nurse will inform the parents that poor oral health can have serious consequences for overall health. The mother may be uninterested in discussions about fluoridation and community health. Placing one's hands in one's mouth exposes the child to pathogens and is appropriate for promoting personal hygiene. Soft drink consumption is better addressed when promoting a healthy diet. Consume fluoridated water and use fluoride toothpaste. Maintain good oral hygiene. Brush your teeth thoroughly twice a day and floss between your teeth once a day to remove dental plaque. Even if you have dentures or no natural teeth, you should see your dentist at least once a year.
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the nurse is providing care for a client who had a biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch 2 days ago. how should the nurse best address the client's risk for postoperative venous thromboembolism?
The nurse should assist the client with ambulating as early and often as possible to best address the client's risk for postoperative venous thromboembolism. The correct answer is option(a).
A blood clot in a vein causes a disorder known as venous thromboembolism (VTE). Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism are examples of VTE (PE). A blood clot in a deep vein, typically in the lower leg, thigh, or pelvis, causes DVT.
Ambulation increases circulation, which can aid in preventing the formation of blood clots that can lead to strokes. Walking increases blood flow, which helps wounds heal more quickly. A crucial intervention in the prevention of VTE is early ambulation. For the prevention of postoperative VTE, coumadin is not utilized. Not venous thromboembolism, but breathing exercises can avoid respiratory problems. The client's skin integrity is preserved by repositioning.
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The nurse is providing care for a client who had a biliopancreatic diversion with a duodenal switch 2 days ago. How should the nurse best address the client's risk for postoperative venous thromboembolism?
a. Assist the client with ambulating as early and often as possible
b. Administer coumadin PO as prescribed
c. Assist the client with performing deep breathing and coughing exercises
d. Reposition the client at least every 2 hours while in bed
Between 1996 to 2011, what was the percentage increase in opioid addiction measured by people seeking treatment?.
Between 1996 to 2011 900% increase in opioid addiction measured by people seeking treatment.
Opioids are a group of medications that are derived from or mimic the natural components of the opium poplar plant. Opioids have many different impacts on the brain, one of which is pain alleviation.
Prescription painkillers and illicit substances are both opioids. The pleasure (or "high") that opioids can provide is a factor in some people's use of them. Addiction to opioids, also known as opioid use disorder, can be brought on by them (OUD).
When medically necessary and used as recommended, prescription opioids can calm the body and ease the symptoms of a disorder, an injury, or a surgical procedure, such as post-surgery pain.
trauma or illness-related excruciating pain, Coughing's, Diarrhea
Opioids can be administered intravenously, orally, topically, or sublingually.
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individuals with asthma suffer from bronchoconstriction and inflammation in their bronchioles. why doesn't bronchoconstriction occur in the larger bronchi? an inhaler typically mimics epinephrine's effects on the bronchioles. what do you think it does?
Bronchoconstriction doesn't occur in the larger bronchi because it has cartilages which help in the mediation of the process.
What is Bronchoconstriction?This is referred to as the process in which the airways of an organism are tightened as a result of different factors such as allergic reactions etc.
It doesn't occur in the larger bronchi because it has cartilages present in its structure which help in the mediation of the given process. The bronchioles have smooth surfaces which can become narrow or contract thereby leading to the individual having difficulties in breathing and a common example is those who have asthma.
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a client scheduled for a colonoscopy is scheduled to receive a hypertonic enema prior to the procedure. a hypertonic enema is classified as which type of enema?
Normal saline, an isotonic solution that is regarded as a safe enema solution, is categorized as a hypertonic enema. Small-volume enemas that use hypertonic solutions are frequently prepared.
Soap solutions, which pull fluid from the body to moisten the faces, are particularly irritating to the colon hence are rarely prescribed. Fluid from the interstitial space is drawn out using a hypertonic enema. It is also known as ordinary normal saline. As a result of the fluid filling up the colon, defecation is encouraged and also known as normal saline. This kind of enema is especially beneficial for patients who cannot handle big amounts of liquids. For individuals who are dehydrated, these enemas are not recommended.
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a neonatal nurse examines an infant born with a congenital diaphragmatic hernia (cdh). the nurse is prepared for what condition associated with cdh that generally occurs at birth or within the first few hours of life?
As a result of CDH's requirement that the lungs expand when compressed, several parts of their functionality could not fully mature until after the infant is born. A newborn with CDH may experience pulmonary hypoplasia, a condition in which the lungs are underdeveloped.
When does a pregnancy-related diaphragmatic hernia happen?CDH is often detected during a routine prenatal ultrasound in the first or second trimester and affects roughly one in every 2,200 live births. Mild to severe congenital diaphragmatic hernias are possible.
There is no known cause of CDH. Although it can arise in conjunction with cardiac disease or a genetic anomaly that might cause extra difficulties, CDH is often an independent discovery.
Diaphragmatic hernia patients should not put off surgical repair because doing so might result in problems such the creation of volvuli, imprisonment, strangulation, bleeding, or even the rupture of a hollow visceral organ.
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when a nurse observes that an older client's skin is dry and shiny and his nails are thickened, the nurse determines that the client is most likely experiencing
When a nurse observes that an older client's skin is dry and shiny and his nails are thickened, the nurse determines that the client is most likely experiencing poor tissue perfusion.
Poor tissue perfusion describes the dearth of ventilated blood flow to areas of the body. correct insertion is harmful to the perform of organs and body systems as organs and tissues that don't seem to be perfusing can die.
Signs and symptoms of poor tissue perfusion include oliguria (reduced urine output) or anuria (absence of urine output), changes in skin characteristics like dry skin, changes in bowel sounds and pulse, and nausea.
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the client with chronic kidney disease and heart failure is weak and dyspneic. laboratory work reveals a hemoglobin of 6.5 g/dl (65 g/l). which type of blood product will nurse expect the health care provider to order?
According to the research, the correct answer is that the nurse will expect the health care provider to order packed cells also called PRBC.
What are packed cells?It is a concentrate or component of red cells that is obtained after a blood donation once the rest of the components have been separated, that is, after being centrifuged, it is used in chronic anemia.
In this sense, PRBC transfusion is indicated when there is a need to jointly restore the patient's blood volume and its oxygen transport capacity by replenishing certain blood elements that are deficient in the patient.
Therefore, we can conclude that packed cells is a blood product indicated for transfusion in chronic anemia, as is the case with the nurse's client.
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a nurse is caring for an older adult with pneumonia. what are age-related structural and functional changes that occur in the respiratory system? select all that apply.
With age respiratory system changes its structure and function as Alveoli can lose their shape and become baggy. The diaphragm can, over time, become weaker, decreasing the ability to inhale and exhale.
Normal age related changes of the respiratory system include decreased ciliary action and decreased cough and laryngeal reflexes, and increased A-P diameter. These changes may increase chance of respiratory disease and can cause respiratory failure .
Factors responsible for change in the function include malnutrition , smoking or structural lung disease . Aging is also by a gradual decline in immune functioning, and decreasing immunity is thought to be an important risk factor for pneumonia in the elderly.
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true or false? unlike most other alcohol-related diseases, fetal alcohol damage does not require chronic intake, meaning that drinking too much alcohol at the wrong moment of pregnancy can cause serious problems.
True, the risk of fetal alcohol syndrome and other fetal alcohol spectrum diseases increases for every pregnant woman who drinks heavily, regardless of whether she has been diagnosed with alcoholism.
One of the many chemicals that can seriously harm embryonic development is ethanol. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy might affect the unborn child's development and result in physical and mental abnormalities. The most severe ailment among those categorized as fetal alcohol spectrum disorders is fetal alcohol syndrome. Fetal alcohol syndrome causes this.
Typically, no additional diagnosed test is necessary to make the diagnosed of alcohol consumption disorder. If you have any of the signs or symptoms of liver disease, your doctor may decide to perform blood work to assess your liver function.
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